TEST PAPER- 5
Q.1:- In a thin cylindrical shell, the ratio of longitudinal stress to hoop stress is
a) 0.5 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4
Q.2:- If all the dimensions of a prismatic bar are doubled, then the maximum stress produced in it under its own weight will
a) decrease b) remain unchanged c) increase to two times d) increase to four times
Q.3:- The elongation of a conical bar under its own weight is equal to
a) that of a prismatic bar of same length b) one half that of a prismatic bar of same length
c) one third that of a prismatic bar of same length d) one fourth that of a prismatic bar of same length
Q.4:- A prismatic bar of volume V is subjected to a tensile force in longitudinal direction. If poission’s ratio of the material is µ and longitudinal strain is e , then the final volume of the bar becomes
a) ( l+e) ( l-µ)2 v b) ( l-e)2 ( l+µ e ) V C) (l + e ) ( l- µ e) 2 V D) ( l – µ e) 3 V
Q.5:- Effective length of a weld is equal to
a) overall length – weld size b) overall length – throat thickness
c) overall length – 2 × weld size d) overall length – 2 × throat thickness
Q.6:- Size of a right angled fillet weld is given by
a) 0.707 × throat thickness b) 0.414 × throat thickness
c) 2.0 × throat thickness d) throat thickness
Q. 7:- The effective length of a fillet weld designed to transmit axial load shall not be less than
a) 2 × size of weld b) 4 × size of weld c) 6× size of weld d) 10 × size of weld
Q.8:- Size of fillet weld with unequal legs is equal to
a) smaller leg length b) longer leg length c) throat thickness d) average of smaller and longer leg lenth
Q.9:- Weakest section in a fillet weld is
a) throat of the fillet b) smaller side c) side parallel to force d) side perpendicular to force
Q.10:- Effective throat thickness of a fillet weld is
a) 0.707 × size of weld b) 1.414 × size of weld
c) a funcation of the angle between fusion faces d) equal to the side of the fillet
Q.11:- If b is the width of the plate and d is the diameter of rivet, then the efficiency of a riveted joint having
diamond riveting is given by
a) b-d/b b) b-d/d c) b-2d/b d) b-2d/d
Q.12:- According to Unwin’s formula, the diameter of rivet in mm to suit the t mm thickness of plate is given by a) 6t b) 6t c) 1.9 t d) 1.5 t + 4
Q.13:- A flat carrying a pull of 690 KN is connected to a gusset plate using rivets. I f the pulls required to shear the rivet, to crush the rivet and to tear the plate per pitch length are 68.5 KN, 46 KN and 69 KN respectively, then the number of rivet required is
a) 10 b) 12 c) 15 d) 20
Q. 14:- If the rivet value is 16 & KN and force in the member is 16.3 KN , then the number of rivets required for the connection of the member to a gusset plate is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
Q. 15:- When a member is subjected to axial tensile load, the greatest normal stress is equal to
a) half the maximum shear stress b) maximum shear stress
c) twice the maximum shear stress d) none of the above
Q.16:- At a point in a strained body carrying two unequal unlike principal stresses p1 and p2 ( p1> p2), the maximum shear stress
is given by
a) p1/2 b) p2/2 c) (p1-p2) /2 d) ( p1 + p2 ) / 2
Q.17:- If a point in a strained material is subjected to equal normal and tangential stresses, then the angle of obliquity is
a) 0 b) 45 0 c) tan-1 (1/2) d) tan -1 (2)
Q.18:- If the principal stresses at a point in a strained body are p1 and p2 (p1> p2) , then the resultant stress on a plane carrying
the maximum shear stress is equal to
a) 12 + p22 b) p12 +p22/2 c) p12 – p22/2 d)p12 +p22/2
Q.19:- The plane of maximum obliquity is inclined to the major principal plane at an angle
a) b) c) d) max
where max is the angle of maximum obliquity.
Q. 20:- If a prismatic member with area of cross section A is subjected to a tensile load P, then the maximum shear stress and its inclination with the direction of load respectively are
a) P/A and 450 b) P/2A and 450 c) P/ 2A and 600 d) P/A and 300
Q. 21:- The sum of normal stresses is
a) constant b) variable c) dependent on the planes d) none of the above
Q.22:- The radius of Mohr ‘s circle for two equal unlike principal stresses of magnitude P is
a) P b) p/2 c) zero D) none of the above
Q.23:- According to Rankine’s hypothesis, the criterion of failure of a brittle material is
a) maximum principal stress b) maximum shear stress c) maximum strain energy d) maximum shear strain energy
Q.24:- The difference in ordinate of the shear curve between any two sections is equal to the area under
a) load curve between any two sections b) shear curve between these two sections c) bending moment curve between these two sections d) load curve between these two sections plus concentrated loads applied between the sections
Q. 25:- A cantilever beam AB of length L carries a concentrated load W at its midspan C. If the free end B is supported on a rigid prop, then there is a point of contraflexure
a) between A and C B) Between C and B
c) one between A and C and other between C and B D) nowhere in the beam
Q.26:- A prismatic beam fixed at both ends carries a uniformly distributed load. The ratio of bending moment at the supports to the bending moments at mid- span is
a) 0.5 b) 1.0 c) 1.5 d) 2.0
Q.27:- A beam of overall length I with equal overhangs on both sides carries a uniformly distributed load over the entire length. To have numerically equal bending moments at center of the beam and at supports, the distance between the supports should be
a) 0.277 I b) 0.403 I c) 0.586 I D) 0.707 I
Q.28:- A prismatic beam of length I and fixed at both ends carries a uniformly distributed load . The distance of points of contraflexure from either end is
a) 0.207 I B) 0.211 I C) 0.277 I D) 0.25 I
Q.29:- If a cantilever beam carries a uniformly distributed load over its entire length, then shapes of shear – force diagram and bending- moment diagram respectively are
a) quadratic parabola and cubic parabola b) triangle and quadratic parabola
c) rectangle and triangle d) quadratic parabola and triangle
Q.30:- A portion of a beam between two sections is said to be in pure bending when there is
a) constant bending moment and zero shear force b) constant shear force and zero bending moment
c) constant bending moment and constant shear force d) none of the above
Q.31:- The ratio of width to depth of a strongest beam that can be cut of a cylindrical log of wood is
a)1/2 b) 1/ c) 1/3 d) 2/3
Q.32:- Of the servel prismatic beams of equal lengths, the strongest in flexure is the one having maximum
a) moment of inertia b) section modulus c) tensile strength d) area of cross- section
Q.33:- Of the two prismatic beams of same material, length and flexure strength, one is circular and other is square in cross- section . The ratio of weights of circular and square beam is
a) 1.118 b) 1.342 c) 1.000 d) 0.793
Q. 34:- A flitched beam consists of a wooden joist 150 mm wide and 300 mm deep strengthened by steel plates 10 mm thick and 300 mm deep one on either side of the joist. If modulus of elasticity of steel is 20 times that of wood, then the width of equivalent wooden section will be
a) 150mm b) 350 mm c) 500 mm d) 550mm
Q.35:- A beam of rectangular cross- section is 100 mm wide and 200 mm deep. If the section is subjected to a shear force of 20KN, then the maximum shear stress in the section is
a) 1 N/ mm2 b) 1. 125 N/ mm2 c) 1.33 N/mm2 d) 1.5 N /mm2
Q.36:- A beam of square cross section with side 100 mm is placed with one diagonal vertical if the shear force acting on the section is 10 KN, the maximum shear stress is
a) 1 N / mm 2 b) 1.125 N / mm2 c) 2 N / MM2 D) 2.25 n/ mm2
Q. 37:- A beam of triangular cross section is placed with its base horizontal . The maximum shear stress intensity in the section will be
a) at the neutral axis b) at the base c) above the neutral axis d) below the neutral axis
Q. 38:- A beam of I- section 600 mm deep and 200 mm wide has flanges 25 mm thick and web 20 mm thick . If the shear stress in the web at the junction of flange and web is q, then the shear stress in the flange at the junction is
a) 10 q b) q c) 0.5 q d) 0.1 q
Q.39:. A beam of uniform strength has at every cross- section same
a) bending moment b) bending stress c) deflection d) stiffness
Q.40:- For no torsion, the plane of bending should
a) be parallel to one of the principal axes b) pass through shear center of section
c) pass through neutral axis of the section d) pass through center of gravity of the section
Q.41:- Two beams, one of circular cross- section and other of square cross- section, have equal areas of cross section . If subjected to bending
a) circular section is more economical b) square section is more economical
c) both section are equally strong d) both sections are equally stiff
Q.42:- The portion, which should be removed from top and bottam of a circular cross section of diameter D in order to obtain maximum section modulus, is
a) 0.01 d b) 0.1 d c) 0.011 d d) 0.11 d
Q.43:- A beam of overall length l rests on two simple supports wit6h equal overhangs on both sides. Two equal loads act at the free ends. If the deflection at the center of the beam is the same as at either end, then the length of either overhangs is
a) 0 152 I B) 0.207 I C) 0.252 l d) 0.277 I
Q.44:- A beam ABC rests on simple supports at A and B with BC as an overhang. D is center of span AB. If in the first case a concentrated load P acts at C while in the second case load P acts at D , then the
a) deflection at D in the first case will be equal to the deflection at C in the second case
b) deflection at C in the first case is equal to the deflection at D in the second case
c) deflection at D in the first case will always be smaller than the deflection at C in the second case
d) deflection at D in the first case will always be greter than the deflection at C in the second case
Q.45:- If the deflection at the free end of a uniformly loaded cantilever veam is 15 mm and the slope of the deflection curve art the free end is 0.02 radian, then the length of the beam is
a) 0.8 m b) 1 m c) 1.2 m d) 1.5 m
Q.46:- A simply supported beam ABC of length I carries a concentrated load P at an intermediate point B. If the slope at A is 0.75
Times the slope at C, then the length of portion AB is equal to
A)3/4 I B) 4/7 I C) 5/7 I D) 2/7 I
Q.47:- If the deflection at the free end of a uniformly loaded cantilever beam of length 1 m is equal to 7.5 mm, then the slope at the free end is
a) 0.01 radian b) 0.015 radian c) 0.02 radian d) none of the above
Q.48:- A simply supported beam of circular cross – section with diameter d and length I carries a concentrated load W at the centre of the beam . The strength of the beam is proportional to
a) d2/I b) d3/I c) i/d2 d) i/d3
Q.49:- A cantilever beam carries a uniformly distributed load from fixed end to the centre of the beam in the first case and a uniformly distributed load of same intensity from centre of the beam to the free end in the second case. The ratio of deflections in the two cases is
a) 1/2 b) 3/11 c) 5/24 d) 7/41
Q.50:- If the length of a simply supported beam carrying a concentrated load at the centre is doubled, the deflection at the centre will become
a) two times b) four times c) eight times d) sixteen times
ANSWER
- C 2. C 3. C 4. C
5. C 6. B 7. B 8. A
9. A 10. B 11. A 12. B
13. C 14. B 15. C 16. D
17. B 18. B 19. B 20. B
21. A 22. A 23. A 24. A
25. A 26. D 27. C 28. B
29. B 30. A 31. B 32. B
33. A 34. D 35. D 36. B
37. C 38. D 39. B 40. B
41. B 42. C 43. A 44 A.
45. B 46. C 47. C 48. B
49. D 50. C
Soil mechanics and foundation Engineering
1. Residual soils are formed by
a) Glaciers b) wind c) water d) none of the above
2. Water content of soil can
a) Never be greater than 100 % b) take values only from 0 % to 100 %
c) be less than 0 % d) by greater than 100 %
3. Which of the following types of soil is transported by gravitational forces?
a) Loess b) talus c) drift d) dune sand
4. A fully saturated soil is said to be
a) one phase system b) two phase system with soil and air
c) two phase system with soil and water d) three phase system
5. Vaild range for S , the degree of saturation of soil in per cent age is
a) S > 0 B) S ≤ 0 C) 0 < S < 100 D) 0 ≤ S ≤ 100
6. The submerged density of soil in terms of unit weight of water y w specific gravity G and voids ratio E is given by the expression
a) yw( G+ I )/ I+ E B) Y W ( G- I )/ I-E C) Y W ( G + I ) / I- E D) Y W ( G – I )/ I + E
7. A soil; has a bulk density of 22 KN / m 3 and water content 10 % . The dry density of soil is
a) 18.6 KN /m3 b) 20.0 KN / m 3 c) 22.0 KN /m3 d) 23.2 KN/ m3
8. If the voids of a soil mass are full of air only, the soil is termed as
a) air entrained soil b) partially saturated soil c) dry soil d) dehydrated soil
9. Valid range for n , the percentage voids , is
a) 0 < n < 100 b) 0 ≤ n ≤ 100 c) n > 0 d) n ≤ 0
10. Select the correct statement.
a) Unit weight of dry soil is greater than unit weight of wet soil.
b) For dry soils, dry unit weight is less than total unit weight
c) Unit weight of soil increase due to submergence in water.
d) Unit weight of soil decrease due to submergence in water.
11. Voids ratio of a soil mass can
a) never be greater than unity b) be zero
c) take any value greater than zero d) take values between 0 and 1 only
12. If the volume of voids is equal to the volume of solids in a soil mass, than the values of porosity and voids ratio respectively are
a) 1.0 and 0.0 b) 0.0 and 1.0 c) 0.5 and 1.0 d) 1.0 and 0.5
13. When the degree of saturation is zero , the soil mass under consideration represent
a) one phase system b) two phase system with soil and air
c) two phase system with soil and water d) three phase system
14. Select the correct range of density index,
a) I D > 0 B) I D ≥ 0 C) 0 < I D < 1 D) 0 ≤ ID ≤ I
15. If the degree of saturation of a partially saturated soil is 60 % , then air content of the soil is
a) 40 % b) 60 % c) 80 % d) 100 %
16. If the water content of a fully statured soil mass is 100 %, then the voids ratio of the sample is
A) Less than specific gravity of soil b) equal to specific gravity of soil
c) Greater than specific gravity of soil d) independent of specific gravity of soil
17. The ratio of volume of voids to the total volume of soil mass is called
A) air content b) porosity c) percentage air voids d) voids ratio
18. Relative density of compacted dense sand is approximately equal to
a) 0.4 b) 0.6 c) 0.95 d) 1.20
19. If the sand in – situ is in its denest state, then the relatives density of send is
a) Zero b) 1 c) between 0 and 1 d) greater than 1
20. Which of the following methods is most accurate for the determination of the water content of soil ?
a) oven drying method b) sand bath method
c) calcium carbide method d) pycnometer method
21. For proper field control, which of the following methods is best suited for quick determination of water content of a soil mass?
a) oven drying method b) sand bath method
c) alcohol method d) calcium carbide method
22. A pycnometer is used to determine
a) water content and voids determine b) specific gravity and dry density
c) water content and specific gravity d) voids ratio and dry density
23. Stoke’s law is valid only if the size of particle is
a) less than 0.0002 mm b) greater than 0.2 mm
c) between 0.2 mm and 0.0002 mm d) all of the above
24. In hydrometer analysis for a soil mass
a) both menisus correction and dispersing agent correction are additive
b)both meniscus correction and dispersing agent correction are subtractive
c) Meniscus correction is additive and dispersing agent correction is subtractive
d) Meniscus correction is subtractive and dispersing agent correction is additive
25. The hydrometer method of sedimentation analysis differs from the pipette analysis mainly in
a) the principal of test b) the method of taking observations
c) the method of preparation of soil suspension d) all of the above
26. Which of the following is a measure of particle size range ?
a) Effective size b) uniformly coefficient c) coefficient of curvature d) none of the above
27. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Uniformity coefficient represents the shape of the particle size distribution curve .
b) For a well graded soil, both uniformity coefficient and coefficient of curvature are nearly unity.
c) A soil is said to be well graded if it has most of the particles of about the same size
d) none of the above
28. Uniformity coefficient of a soil is
a) always less than I b) always equal to I
c) equal to or less than I d) equal to or greater than I
29. According to Atterberg, the soil is said to be of medium plasticity if the plasticity index PI is
a) 0 < PI < 7 b) 7 ≤ PI ≤ 17 C) 17 < PI < 27 D) PI ≥ 27
30. If the natural water content of soil mass lies between its liquid limit and plastic limit , the soil mass is said to be in
a) liquid state b) plastic state c) semi- solid state d) solid state
31. The ratio LIQUID LIMIT – WATER CONTENT / PLASTICITY INDEX for a soil mass is called
a) liquidity index b) shrinkage ratio c) consistency index d) toughness index
32. When the plastic limit of a soil is greater then the liquid limit, then the plastic city index is reported as
a) Negative b) zero c) non- plastic d) I
33. Toughness index is defined as the ratio of
a) Plasticity index to consistency index b) plasticity index to flow index
c) Liquidity index to flow index d) consistency index to liquidity index
34. If the plasticity index of a soil mass is zero, the soil is
a) sand b) slit c) clay d) clayey slit
35. The admixture of coarser particles like sand or slit to clay causes
a) Decrease in liquid limit and increase in plasticity index b) decrease in liquid limit and no change in plasticity index
c) Decrease in both liquid limit and plasticity index d) increase in both liquid limit and plasticity index
36. Select the correct statement.
a) A uniform soil has more strength and stability than a non – uniform soil.
b) A uniform soil has less strength and stability than a non – uniform soil.
c) Uniformity coefficient does not affect strength and stability
d) Unifomity coefficient of a poorly graded soil is more than that of a well graded soil.
37. The following index properties were determined for four soils A, B, C and D .
SOIL PROPERTY |
A B C D |
Liquid limit Plastic limit |
0.50 0.49 0.43 0.47 0.23 0.17 0.21 0.26 |
Which of these soils contains more clay particles?
a) Soil A b) Soil B c) Soil C d) Soil D
38. The water content of soil , which represent the boundary between plastic state and liquid state , is known as
a) liquid limit b) plastic limit c) shrinkage limit d) plasticity index
39. Which of the following soils has more plasticity index ?
a) Sand b) slit c) clay d) gravel
40. At liquid limit, all soils posses
a) Same shear strength of small magnitude b) same shear strength of large magnitude
c) Different shear strengths of small magnitude d) different shear strength of large magnitude
41. If the material of the base of the casegrande liquid limit device on which the cup containing soil paste drops is softer than the standard hard rubber, then
a) The liquid limit of soil always increase b) the liquid limit of soil always decrease
c) The liquid limit of soil may increase d) the liquid limit of soil may decrease
42. According to IS classification, the range
a) 4.75 mm to 2.00 mm b) 2.00 mm to 0.425 mm
c) 0.425 mm to 0.075 mm d) 0.075 mm to 0.002 mm
43. Highway Research Board ( HRB) classification of soils is based on
a) particle size composition b) plasticity characteristics
c)both particle size composition and plasticity characteristics d) none of the above
44. Inorganic soils with low compressibility are re presented by
a) MH b) SL c) ML d) CH
45. Sand particles are made of
a) rock minerals b) kaolinite c) illite d) montmorillonite
46. The clay mineral with the largest swelling and shrinkage characteristics is
a) Kaolinite b) illite c) montmorillonite d) none of the above
47. Dispersed type of soil structure is an arrangement comprising particles having
a) face to face or parallel orientation b) edge to edge orientation
c) edge to face orientation d) all of the above
48.Effective stress is
a) the stress at particles contact b) a physical parameter that can be measured
c) important because it is a function of engineering properties of soil d) all of the above
49. Rise of water table above the ground surface causes’
a) equal increase in pore water pressure and total stress b) equal decrease in pore water pressure
c)increase in pore water pressure but decrease in total stress
d) decrease in pore water pressure but increase in total stress
50. The total and effective stresses at a depth of 5 m below the top level of water in a swimming pool are respectively
a) Zero and zero b) 0.5 kg/ cm 2 and zero
c) 0.5 kg / cm 2 and 0.5 kg / cm 2 d) 1.0 kg / cm 2 and 0.5 kg / cm2
51. If the water table rises up to ground surface, then the
a) Effective stress is reduced due to decrease in total stress only but pore water pressure does not change
b) Effective stress is reduced due to increase in pore water pressure only but t6otal stress does not change
c) Total stress is reduced due to increase in pore water pressure only but effective stress does not change
d) Total stress is increased due to decrease in pore water pressure but effective stress does not not change
52. The critical hydraulic gradient I c of a soil mass of specific gravity G and voids ratio e is given by
a) ic = G+I / I-E B) I C = G-I / I+E C) I C = G+ I / I+ E D) IC = G – I / I – E
53. Quick sand is a
a) type of sand b) flow condition occurring in cohesiv4e soils
c) flow condition occurring in cohesionless soils
d) flow c ondition occurring in both cohesive and cohesionless soils
54. The hydraulic head that would produce a quick condition in a sand stratum of thickness 1.5 m , specific gravity 2.67 and voids ratio 0.67 is equal to
a) 1.0 m b) 1.5 m c) 2.0 m d) 3 m
55. Physical properties of a per meant which influence permeability are
a) Viscosity only b) unit weight only
c) both viscosity and unit weight d) none of the above
56. Select the correct statement
.
a) The greater the viscosity, the greater is permeability
b) the greater the unit weight, the greater is permeability.
c) The greater the unit weight, the smaller is permeability.
d) unit weight does not affect permeability.
57. Effective stress on soil.
a) Increases voids ratio and decreases permeability b) increase both voids ratio and permeability
c) Decreases both voids ratio and permeability d) decreases voids ratio and increases permeability
58. If the permeability of a soil is 0.8 mm / sec, the type of soil is
a) gravel b) sand c) slit d) clay
59. Which of the following methods is more suitable for the determination of permeability of clayey soil?
a) constant head method b) falling head method
c) horizontal permeability test d) none of the above
60. Which of the following methods is best suited for determination of permeability of coarse – grained soils?
a) constant head method b) failing head method
c) both the above d) none of the above
61. Due to a rise in temperature, the viscosity and the unit weight of the percolating fluid are reduced to 60 % and 90 % respectively. If other things remain constant, the coefficient of permeability
a) Increase by 25 % b) increase by 50 %
c) increase by 33.3 % d) decrease by 33.3 %
62. Coefficient of permeability of soil
a) Does not depend upon temperature b) increases with the increase in temperature
c) Increase with the decrease in temperature d) none of the above
63. The most suitable method for drainage of fine grained cohesive soil is
a) well point system b) vacuum method c) deep well system d) electro- osmosis method
64. T he value of compression index for a remolded sample whose liquid limit is 50% is
a) 0.028 b)0 .28 c)0.36 d) 0.036
65. Which one of the following clays behaves like a dense and?
a) Over – consolidated clay with a high over – consolidation ratio
b) over consolidated clay with a low over consolidation ratio
c) Normally consolidated clay d) under consolidation clay
66. The ultimate consolidation settlement of a soil is
a) Directly proportional to the voids ratio b) directly proportional to the compression index
c) Inversely proportional to the compression index d) none of the above.
67. Coarse grained soils are best compacted by a
a) drum roller b) rubber tyred roller c) sheep’s foot roller d) vibratory roller
68. Select the incorrect statement.
a) Effective cohesion of a soil can never have a negative value
b) effect angle of internal frication for coarse grained soils is rarely below 300
c) Effective angle of internal friction for a soil increase as state of compactness increase.
d) Effective angle of internal friction is a complicated function of mineralogy and clay size content.
69. For a loose sand sample and a dense sand sample consolidated to the same effective stress
a) ultimate strength is same and also peak strength is same
b) ultimate strength is different but peak strength is sa,me
c) ultimate strength is same but peak strength of dense sand is greater than that of loose sand
d) ultimate strength is same but peak strength of loose sand is greater than that od dense sand
70. The shear strength of a soil
A) is directly proportional to the angle of internal friction of the soil
b) is inversely proportional to the angle of internal frication of the soil
c) Decrease with increase in normal stress
d) Decrease with decrease in normal stress
71. In a consolidated drained test on a normally consolidated clay, the volume of the soil sample during shear
a) Decrease b) increase c) remains unchanged d) first increase then decrease
72. In the triaxial compression test, the application of additional axial stress ( i.e. devitor stress) on the soil specimen produces shear stress on
a) Horizontal plane only b) vertical plane only
c) both horizontal and vertical planes d) all planes except horizontal and vertical planes
74. The coefficient of active earth pressure for loose sand having an angle of internal friction of 300 is
a) 1/3 b) 3 c) 1 d) 1/ 2
75. Passive earth pressure in a soil mass is proportional to
a) tan 2 [ 450 + ø /2 ] b) µ / ( I – µ)
c) tan 2 [450 –ø/2 ] d) cot 2[ 450 + ø /2]
76. The effect of cohesion on a soil is to
a) Reduce both the active earth pressure intensity and passive earth pressure intensity
b) Increase both the active earth pressure intensity and passive earth pressure intensity
c) Reduce the active earth pressure intensity but to increase the passive earth pressure intensity
d) Increase the active earth pressure intensity but to reduce the passive earth pressure intensity
77. The settlement of a group of friction piles as compared to that of a single pile is
a) same b) less c) more d) none of the above
78. Select the correct statement.
a) Both negative skin friction and skin friction resistance are caused by relative settlement of soil.
b) Both negative skin friction and skin friction resistance are caused by relative settlement of pile.
c) Negative skin friction is caused by relative settlement of soil and skin friction resistance is caused by relative settlement of pile.
d) Negative skin friction is caused by relative settlement of pile and skin frictional resistance is caused by relative settlement of soil.
79. Select the incorrect statement.
a) Static formulae are suitable for friction piles driven through cohesive soils .
b) Dynamic formulae are most suitable for friction piles driven through cohesive soils.
c) Dynamic formulae are suitable for friction piles driven through cohesionless soils.
d) Dynamic formulae do not take in to account the reduced bearing capacity of a pile in a group .
80. Mechanical stabilization of soil is done with the help of
a) Cement b) lime c) bitumen d) proper grading
81. For an anisotropic soil, permeability’s in x and y directions are KX and KY respectively in a two dimensional flow. The effective permeability Keq for the soil is given by:
a) kx + ky b) kx / ky c) ( k x 2 + k y 2 ) 1 / 2 d) ( kx ky) ½
82. A soil having particles of nearly the same size is known as :
a) well graded b) uniformly graded c) poorly graded d) gap graded
83. The soils most susceptible to liquefaction are
a) Saturated dense sands b) saturated fine and medium sands of uniform particle size
c) Saturated clays of uniform size d) saturated gravels and cobbles
84. For a given soil sample ,
Cc = coefficient of gradation
Cu = coefficient of uniformity
D 10 = effective size
D 30 = diameter through which 30 per cent of the total soil mass is passing
If cc = 1.0 and cu = 4.0 , then the value of D 30 / D 10 would be
a) 2.00 b) 1.75
c) 1.50 d) 1.25
85. The relationship between water content ( W % ) and number of below ( N ) in soils, as obtained from Casagrande ‘s liquid limit device is given by
W = 20 –I 0 G 10 N
The liquid limit of the soil is
a) 15.6 % b) 16.6 %
c) 17.6 % d) 18.6 %
86. Undisturbed soil samples are required for conducting
a) hydrometer test b) shrinkage limit test c) consolidation test d) specific gravity test
87. Soil pressure distribution below a rigid footing on the surface of a cohesive soil is
a) Maximum at the centre and minimum at edgs b) minimum at the centre and maximum at edge
c) uniform throughout d) maximum at one end and minimum at the other end
88. Compression index on a soil helps to determine
a) Total time required for consolidation b) time required for 50 percent consolidation
c) total settlement of clay layer d) pre – consolidation pressure of clay
89. The process by which a mass of saturated soil is cashed by external forces to suddenly lose its shear strength and to behave as a fluid is called
a) piping b) slide c) quick condition d) liquefaction
90. Which one of the following, gives the correct decreasing order of the densities of a soil sample ?
a) Saturated, submerged, wet, dry b) saturated, wet , submerged, dry
c) Saturated, wet, dry , submerged d) wet , saturated , submerged , dry
Answer Key
1. D 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. D 6. D
7. B 8. C 9. A 10. D 11. C 12. C
13. B 14. D 15. A 16. B 17. B 18. C
19. B 20. A 21. D 22. C 23. C 24. C
25. B 26. B 27. D 28. D 29. B 30. B
31. C 32. B 33. B 34. A 35. C 36. B
37. B 38. A 39. C 40. A 41. A 42. D
43. C 44. C 45. A 46. C 47. A 48. C
49. A 50. B 51. B 52. B 53. C 54. B
55. C 56. C 57. C 58. B 59. B 60. A
61. B 62. B 63. D 64. B 65. A 66. B
67. D 68. A 69. C 70. D 71. A 72. D
73. A 74. A 75. A 76. C 77. C 78. C
79. B 80. D 81. D 82. B 83. B 84. A
85. D 86. C 87. B 88. C 89. D 90. C
TEST – 4 (SURVEYING)(CIVIL)
Q.1 If the probable error in single observation is +0.04 m and that of the mean is +0.01m, then the number of observation are
a) 4 b) 10
c) 16 d) 64
Q.2 Theory of probability is applied to
a) accidental errors only
b) cumulative errors only
c) both accidental and cumulative errors
d) None of these
Q.3 A survey is conducted with a view to prepare the map of an area to a scale of 1 : 1000. If a scale with least count of 0.1 mm is used for plotting. What would be the accuracy in length measurement in the field
a) 0.325m b) 0.01m
c) 0.1m d) 1m
Q.4 The difference between the most probable value of a quantity and its observed value is
a) true error
b) weighted observation
c) conditional error
d) residual error
Q.5 Geodetic surveying is different form plane surveying because of
a) the curvature of the earth
b) the large difference of elevations between various points
c) coverage of very large area
d) undulations of the topography
Q.6 The error due to bad ranging is
a) cumulative; positive
b) cumulative’ negative
c) compensating
d) cumulative; positive or negative
Q.7 ‘Offsets’ are
a) short measurements from chain line
b) ties or check lines which are perpendicular to chain line
c) sets of minor instruments in chain surveying
d) chain lines which go out of alignment
Q.8 Which of the following instruments generally used for base line measurements?
a) chain
b) metallic tape
c) steel tape
d) invar tape
Q.9 An invar tape is made of an alloy of
a) copper and steel
b) brass and nickel
c) brass and steel
d) nickel and steel
Q.10 Number of links in a 30m metric chain is
a)100 b)150
c)180 d)200
Q.11 ‘Ranging; is the process of
a) Fixing ranging rods on the extremities of the area
b) Aligning the chain in a straight line between two extremities
c) Taking off sets room a chain line
d) Chaining over a range of mountains
Q.12 The principle of ‘working from whole to part’ is used in surveying because
a) Plotting becomes easy
b) Survey work can be completed quickly
c) Accumulation of errors is prevented
d) all of the above
Q.13 During chaining along a straight line, the leader of the party has 4 arrows in his hand while for follower has6. Distance of the follower form the starting point is
a) 4 chains b) 6 chains
c) 120m d) 180
Q.14 A metallic tape is made of
a) Steel b) invar
c) Linen d) cloth and wires
Q.15 For a well conditioned triangle, no angle should be less than
a) 200 b) 300
c) 450 d) 600
Q.16 What is the distance between tress T1 and T2 shown in .
a) 4m b) 5m
c) 7m d) 12m
Q.17 The position of a point can be fixed more accurately by
a) Cross staff
b) Optical square
c) Oblique offsets
d) Perpendicular offsets
Q.18 The main object of running a tie line is
a) To check accuracy of work
b) To take details of nearby objects
c) To take offsets for detained surveying
d) None of these
Q.19 Which of the following is an obstacle in chaining but not to ranging?
a) River b) hillock
c) Building d) None of the above
Q.20 A building is an obstacle to
a) Chaining but not ranging
b) Ranging but not chaining
c) Both chaining and ranging
d) Neither chaining nor ranging
Q.21 The main difference between an optical square and a prism square is
a) Difference in principle of working
b) That optical square is more accurate than prism square
c) that no adjustment is required in a prism square since the angle between the reflecting surfaces cannot be changed.
d) all of the above
Q.22 The angle of intersection of the two plane mirrors of an optical square to
a) 300 b) 450
c) 600 d) 900
Q.23 The allowable length of an offset depends upon the
a) degree of accuracy required
- Method of setting out the perpendiculars and nature of ground
- Scale of plotting
- All of the above
Q.24 Which of the following angles can be set out with the help of French cross staff?
a) 450 only b) 900 only
c) either 450 or 900 d) any angle
Q.25 The permissible error in chaining for measurement with chain on rough or hilly ground is
a) 1 in 100 b) 1 in 250
c) 1 in 500 d) 1 in 1000
Q.26 The correction for sag is
a) Always additive
b) Always subtractive
c) Always zero
d) Sometimes additive and sometimes subtractive
Q.27 Cross staff is an instrument used for
a) Measuring approximate horizontal angles
b) Setting out right angles
c) measuring bearings of the lines
d) none of the above
Q.28 Normal tension is that pull which
a) is used at the time of standardizing the tape
b) neutralizes the effect due to pull and age
c) makes the correction due to sag equal to zero
d) makes the correction due to pull equal to zero
Q.29 Which of the following is not used in measuring perpendicular offsets?
a) Line ranger b) steel tape
c) Optical square d) cross staff
Q.30 If the length of a chain is found to be short on testing, it can be adjusted by
a) Straightening the links
b) Removing one or more small circular rings
c) Closing the joints of the rings if opened out
d) all of the above
Q.31 The maximum tolerance in a 20 m chain is
a)+2mm b) +3mm
c) +5mm d) +8mm
Q.32 For accurate work, the steel band should always be used in preference to chain because the steel band
a) is lighter than chain
b) is easier to handle
c) is practically inextensible and is not liable to kinks when in use
d) Can be easily repaired in the field
Q.33 The length of a chain is measured from
a) centre of one handle to centre of other handle
b) outside of one handle to outside of other handle
c) outside of one handle to inside of other handle
d) inside of one handle to inside of other handle
Q.34 Select the incorrect statements.
a) The true meridians at different places are parallel to each other.
b) The true meridian at any place is no variable
c) The true meridians converge to a point is northern and southern hemispheres.
d) The maps prepared by national survey departments of any country are based on true meridians.
Q.35 If the true bearing of a line AB is 2690 30’, then the azimuth of the line AB is ……………
a) 00 30’
b) 890 30’
c) 900 30’
d) 2690 30’
Q.36 In the prismatic compass
a) The magnetic needle moves with the box
b) The line of the sight does not move with the box
c) The magnetic needle and graduated circle do not move with the box
d) The graduated circle is fixed to the box and the magnetic needle always remains in the N-S direction
Q.37 For a line AB
a) the forbearing of AB and back bearing of AB differ by 180
b) the forbearing of AB and back bearing of BA differ by 1800
c) Both a & b are correct
d) none is correct
Q.38 Local attraction in compass surveying may exist due to
a) Incorrect leveling of the magnetic needle
b) Loss of magnetism of the needle
c) Friction of the needle at the pivot
d) Presence of magnetic substances near the instrument
Q.39 If the quadrennial bearing of a line is N250 W, then the whole circle bearing of the line is
a) S 250 E b) 2050
c) 3350 d) 2950
Q.40 IF the forbearing of line AB is 350 and that of line BC 150 , then the included angle between the lines is
a) 200 b) 500
c) 1600 d) 2300
Q.41 The prismatic compass and surveyor’s compass
a) Give whole circle bearing (WCB) of a line and quadriantal bearing (QB) of a line respectively
b) Both give QB of a line and WCB of a line
c) Both give QB of a line
d) Both give WCB of a line
Q.42 The horizontal angle between the true meridian and magnetic meridian at a place is called.
a) azimuth b) declination
c ) local attraction d) magnetic bearing
Q.43 A negative declination shows that the magnetic meridian is to the
a) eastern side of the true meridian
b) western side of the true meridian
c) southern side of the true meridian
d) none of the above
Q.44 If the magnetic bearing of the sun at a place at noon in southern hemisphere is 1670. The magnetic declination at that place is
a) 770 N b) 230 S
c) 130 E d) 130 W
Q.45 Agate cap is fitted with a
a) cross staff
b) level
c) chain
d) prismatic compass
Q.46 Theodolite is an instrument used for
a) tightening the capstan- headed nuts of level tube
b) measurement of horizontal angles only
c) measurement of vertical angles only
d) measurement of both horizontal and vertical angels
Q.47 The process of turning the telescope about the vertical axis in horizontal plane is known is
a) Transiting b) reversing
c) Plunging d) swinging
Q.48 Size of a theodolite is specified by
a) the length of telescope
b) the diameter of vertical circle
c) the diameter of lower plate
d) the diameter of upper plate
Q.49 Which of the following is not the function of leveling head?
a) to support the main part of the instrument
b) to attach the theodolite to the tripod
c) to provide a means for leveling the theodolite
d) none of the above
Q.50 The adjustment of horizontal cross hair is required particularly when the instrument is used for
a) Leveling
b) Prolonging a straight line
c) Measurement of horizontal angles
d) all of the above
29-01-2016
TEST – 3 (GENERAL ENGINEERING(CIVIL)
Q.1 In sewers, the effect of scouring is more on-
a) top b) bottom
c) horizontal side d) on sides
Q.2 For non- scouring velocity 5 m /sec, the type of sewers generally preferred to is-
a) Cast iron sewers
b) Cement concrete sewers
c) Glazed bricks sewers
d) Stone ware sewers
Q.3 The angle subtended by the surface of lower water with partial flow, at sewer centre is 1200, the depth of sewage is-
a) 20cm b) 25cm
c) 40cm d) 50cm
Q.4 The asbestos cement pipes are generally laid-
a) horizontally b) vertically
c) at angle of 300 d) at angle of 600
Q.5 The algae dies in the zone of-
a) degradation
b) active decomposition
c) recovery
d) clean water
Q.6 The grit & silt of the grit chambers, may not be used for-
a) raising low lying areas by dumping
b) concreting
c) Both a & b
d) Neither a & b
Q.7 Discrete or granular particles change their –
a) Size b) Shape
c) Weight d) None of these
Q.8 The digested sludge from septic tanks, is removed after a maximum in period of-
a) 3 years b) 3.5 years
c) 4 years d) 5 years
Q.9 For the prediction of future population of a city, the factor considered is-
a) births b) deaths
c) migrants d) All of the above
Q.10 The storage capacity of a reservoir may be divided into three zones
a) Dead storage
b)Useful storage
c) Surcharge storage
d) None o these
Q.11 Bessemer process is used for the manufacture of-
a) Pig iron b) Cast iron
c) Wrought iron d) Steel
Q.12 Red short iron cracks when bent due to the presence of-
a) Sulphur b) Carbon
c) Phosphorus d) Silicon
Q.13 Brittleness of cold is due to an excess of-
a) Sulphur b) Carbon
c) Phosphorus d) Silicone
Q.14 Wrought iron is manufactured from pig iron by-
a) refining b) pudding
c) shingling d) all of the above
Q.15 A ferrous metal is-
a) Cast iron
b) wrought iron
c) steel all of the above
Q.16 Mastic Asphalt is-
a) acid resisting material
b) non- corrosive material
c) Corrosive material
d) hearing –resisting material
Q.17 Bitumen is generally obtained from-
a) Organic material
b) Synthetic material
c) Petroleum product
d) Coal
Q.18 Dextrin is-
a) Animal glue
b) Starch glue
c) Albumin glue
d) rubber based adhesive
Q.19 Water paint is a
a) White wash
b) colour wash
c) Whiting
d) All of these
Q.20 Stuck paints are suitable for-
a) Stone masonry
b) Brick walls
c) Both a & b
d) Neither a & b
Q.21 Correction due to refraction is given by:
a) 0.0112D2 b) 0.0785 D2
c) 0.0673D2 d) 0.0012D2
Q.22 An imaginary line passing though the optical centre of the objective and the optical centre of the eye0piece in the telescope of a surveying instrument is called the-
a) horizontal axis
b) line of collimation
c) optical axis of telescope
d) reference axis
Q.23 Survey is preferred with true meridians because there-
a) convergent poles
b) do not change with time
c) facilitate plotting
d) all of the above
Q.24 The locate plan of property boundaries, the scale will be:-
a) 1 : 50 to 1 : 100
b) 1 : 1000 to 1 : 5000
c) 1 : 5000 to 1 : 10000
d) 1 ; 10000 to 1 : 50000
Q.25 The graphical method of producing topographic maps is known as-
a) Cartographic surveying
b) Hydrographic surveying
c) Hand surveying
d) Photogrammetric surveying
Q.26 Error arising from carelessness of the observer are known as-
a) Compensating errors
b) Mistakes
c) systematic errors
d) Discrepancy
Q.27 Theory of probability is applied to
a) accidental errors
b) cumulative errors
c) both a & b
d) None of these
Q.28 The departure of a line traverse is its length multiplies by-
a) Cosine of reduced bearing
b) Sine of reduced bearing
c) Secant of reduced bearing
dj) Tangent of reduced bearing
Q.29 The most accurate method of plotting a traverse by-
a) Independent coordinates
b) Consecutive coordinates
c) Both a & b
d) by tangent
Q.30 The process of establishing intermediate points, on a given straight line where ends are indivisible, with atheodelite is called –
a) Centering b) traversing
c) lining in d) balancing in
Q.31 The activity of clay is equal to
a) Ratio of the percentage of the plasticity index to the percentage of the clay fraction
b) Reaction of clay with alkali salts
c) Rate of flow of clay at optimum moisture content
d) Ratio of the natural water content minus the plastic limit to the liquid limit minus the plastic limit.
Q.32 A pyconometer is used to determine
a) voids ratio b) dry density
c) water content d) density index
Q.33 Which of the following soils has more plasticity index?
a) Sand b) Silt
c) Clay d) Gravel
Q.34 Pick up the correct statement from the following:-
a) In soils, the flow index indicates variation in shear strength with water content.
b) Liquid limit minus plastic limit is known as plasticity index of the soil.
c) Liquid limit minus shrinkage limit is known as shrinkage index of the soil.
d) The ratio of the plasticity index to the flow limit is known as toughness index of the soil.
Q.35 Sedimentation analysis is based on the assumption that
a) soil particles are spherical
b) particles settle independent of other particles
c) walls of the jar do not affect the settlement
d) All of the above
Q.36 Hydrometer readings are corrected for
a) temperature correction
b) meniscus correction
c) dispersing agent correction
d) temperature, meniscus and dispersing agent corrections
Q.37 The minimum water content at which the soil retains its liquid state and also possesses a small shearing strength against flowing is known as
a) liquid limit b) Plastic limit
c) shrinkage limit d) permeability limit
Q.38 The day mineral with the largest swelling and shrinkage characteristics is:
a) kaolinite b) illite
c) montmorilonite d) None of these
Q.39 Quick sand is a
a) type of sand
b) flow condition occurring in cohesive soils
c) flow condition occurring in cohesion less soils
d) flow condition occurring in both cohesive and cohesion less soils
Q.40 Time factor for a clay layer is
a) a dimensional parameter
b) directly proportional to permeability of soil
c) inversely proportional to drainage path
d) independent of thickness of clay layer
Q.41 The ultimate settlement of a soil is
a) Directly proportional to the compressive index
b) Directly proportional to the void ratio
c) Inversely proportional to the compressive index
d) Directly proportional to the stress
Q.42 The coefficient of consolidation is
a) Directly proportional to the coefficient of permeability
b) Directly proportional to the coefficient of compressibility
c) Inversely proportional to the coefficient of permeability
d) None of these
Q.43 The ultimate settlement of a soil is
a) Directly proportional to the depth of the soil strata
b) Inversely proportional to the depth of the compressible soil strata
c) Directly proportional to the depth of the compressible soil strata
d) Unrelated with the depth of the soil
Q.44 Coefficient of compressibility is:
a) Constant of any type of soil
b) different for different types of soils and also different for a soil under different states of consolidation
c) different for different types of soils but same for a soil under different states consolidation
d) independent of type of soil but depends on the stress history of soil
Q.45 For testing a saturated clay for shear strength, the test recommended is.
a) direct shear test
b) triaxial compression test
c) unconfined compression test
d) All of these
Q.46 The web buckling in beams may be avoided by.
a) Stiffening the web
b) Limiting the stress
c) Increasing the span
d) Any one of the above
Q.47 The rivets which are heated and then driven in the field , are known as
a) power driven ship rivets
b) power driven field rivets
c) hand driven rivets
d) cold driven rivets
Q.48 Efficiency of riveted joint is defined as the ratio of
a) least strength of a riveted joint to the strength of solid plate
b) greatest strength of a riveted joint to the strength of solid plate
c) least strength of a riveted plate to the greatest strength of the riveted joint
d) All of the above
Q.49 Design of a riveted joint, is based on the assumption
a) Load is uniformly distributed among all the rivers
b) Shear stress on a rivet is uniformly distributed over its gross area
c) Bearing stress is uniform between the contact surfaces of the plate and the rivet
d) All of these
Q.50 In factory buildings, the horizontal beams spanning between the wall of columns supporting a wall covering, are called
a) stringers b) trimmers
c) grits d) lintels
Q.51 The portal bracing in a truss bridge is used to
a) transfer load from top of end posts to bearing
b) keep the rectangular shape of the bridge cross-section
c) stiffen the structure laterally
d) prevent the sides way buckling of top chord
Q.52 A beam of 1- sections 599 mm deep and 200 mm wide has flanges 25 mm thick and web 20 mm thick. If the shear stress in the web at the junction of flange and web is q, then the shear stress in the flange at the junction is
a) 10q b) q
c) 0.5 q d) 0.1 q
Q.53 If a three hinged parabolic arch carries a uniformly distributed load on its entire span, even section of the arch resists
a) compressive force
b) tensile force
c) shear force
d) ending moment
Q.54 Stress in members of statically determinate simple frames can be determined by
a) Method of joints
b) Method of sections
c) Graphical solutions
d) All of these
Q.55 Dimensions of a beam need by changed if the shear stress is more than
a) 10kg/ kg / cm2
b) 15 kg/ cm2
c) 20 kg/ cm2
d) 25kg/ cm2
Q.56 Lapped splices in tensile reinforcement are generally not used for bars of size larger than
a) 18 mm diameter
b) 24 mm diameter
c) 30 mm diameter
d) 36 mm diameter
Q.57 Steel bars are generally connected together to get greater length than the standard lengths by providing
a) straight bar splice
b) hooked splice
c) dowel splice
d) All of these
Q.58 The width of the flange of a T- beam should . be less than
a) one- third of the effective span of than T- beam
b) distance between the centers of T- beam
c) Breadth of the rib plus twelve times the thickness of the slab
d) None of these
Q.59 The width of the flange of a L- beam, should by less than
a) one – sixth of the effective span
b) Breadth of the rib + four time thickness of the slab
c) Breadth of the rib+ half clear distance between ribs
d) None of these
Q.60 In reinforced concrete footing on soil, the minimum thickness at edge should not be less than
a) 10 cm b) 15cm
c) 20cm d) 25 cm
Q.61 Centre of gravity of trapezium of height h and parallel sides a and b, measured from the side b is a distance of
a) h/2 [(b+2a)/(b+a)] b) h/2 [(b-2a)/(b+a)]
c) h/3 [(b+2a)/(b+a)] d) h/3 [(b+2a)/(b+a)]
Q.62 The units of second moment of an area are
a) kg/m b) kg /m2
c) kg-m2 d) m4
Q.63 M.I. of thin ring (external diameter D, inner diameter d) about an axis perpendicular to the plane of Ring is
a) π/64 (D4+d4) b) π/32 (D4-d4)
c) π/32 (D4+d4) d) π/32 (D4×d4)
Q.64 The velocity of a body fallen height h, on reaching the ground is given by
a) v = 2gh b) v = √2gh
c) v= 1/√2gh d) h2/2g
Q.65 The bending moment is maximum on a section where shear force
a) is maximum b) is minimum
c) is equal d) changes sign
Q.66 The maximum deflection of a simply supported beam of length L with a central load W is
a) 〖WL〗^2/48EI b (W^2 L)/24EI
c) 〖WL〗^2/48EI d) WL/8EI
Q.67 A column is known as medium size if its slenderness ratio is between
a) 20 & 32
b) 32 & 120
c) 120 & 160
d) 160 & 180
Q.68 A shaft turning 150 r.p.m. is subjected to a torque of 150kg-m. Horse power transmitted by the shaft is.
a) π b ) 10 π
c) π^2 d) 1/π
Q.69 If a shaft is rotating N revolutions per minute with an applied torque T kg-m, the horse power being transmitted by the shaft is-
a) 2πNT/550 b) 2πNT/750
c) 2πNT/4500 d) 2πNT/55
Q.70 A cylinder is said to be thin if the ratio of its thickness and diameter, is less than
a) 1/25 b) 1/20
c) 1/15 d) 1/10
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TEST – 2 (CIVIL & STRUCTURAL)
Q.1 If the average daily water consumption of a city is 1000 cum, the peak hourly demand will be:
a) 100 cum/hr b) 112 cum/hr
c) 112.5 cum/hr d) 105.cum/hr
Q.2 The curve of growth of population is:
a) semi-log b) logistic
c) linear d) exponential
Q.3 Displacement efficiency of sedimentation tank is given is:
Q.1 If the average daily water consumption of a city is 1000 cum, the peak hourly demand will be:
a) 100 cum/hr b) 112 cum/hr
c) 112.5 cum/hr d) 105.cum/hr
Q.2 The curve of growth of population is:
a) semi-log b) logistic
c) linear d) exponential
Q.3 Displacement efficiency of sedimentation tank is given is:
a) (detention period)/(flowing through period)
b) (flowing through period)/(detention period)
c) (dtention period)/(area of tank)
d) (flowing through period )/(area of tank)
Q.4 Which of the following chemical compounds can be used for dechlorination of water:
a) carbon dioxide b) chloramines
c) bleaching powder d) sulphur dioxide
Q.5 The average BOD5 of domestic sewage is:
a) 8kg/day/ person
b) 0.08kg/day/person
c) 6kg/day/person
d) 0.6kg/day/person
Q.6 Minimum D.O. prescribed for a river stream, to avoid fish kills is:
a) 4ppm b) 8 ppm
c) 10 ppm d) 15 ppm
Q.7 When the recirculation ratio in the high rate trickling filter is unity, then the recirculation factor is:
a) 1 b) more than 1
c) less than 1 d) zero
Q.8 During temperature inversion in atmosphere, air pollutants tend to:
a) accumulate above inversion layer
b) accumulate below inversion layer
c) disperse laterally
d) disperse vertically
Q.9 The shear force is usually associated with:
a) Bending moment
b) Tensional moment
c) Normal thrust
d) None of these
Q.10 The expression for Euler’s load acting on a column which has one end fixed and one end free is given is:
a) Pe = (π^2 EI)/L^2 b) Pe = (π^2 EI)/(4L^2 )
c) Pe = (〖4π〗^2 EI)/L^2 d) Pe = (〖2π〗^2 EI)/L^2
Q.11 For ductile material the suitable theory of failure is:
a) Maximum principal stress theory
b) Maximum shear stress theory
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
Q.12 The bending stress at the neutral axis and at the extreme fiber of a beam cross section is:
a) Zero, maximum
b) Maximum, minimum
c) Maximum, zero
d) Zero at both the points
Q.13 The ratio of young’s modulus of elasticity for a mild steel specimen in tension and compression is nearly
a) 1 b) 2
c) d)
Q.14 If L is the length of the transition curve and R is the radius of the circular curve, then the shift of the curve is directly proportional to
a) R and b) and L2
c) and L d) R2 and
Q.15 For a star at its upper transit, the local sidereal time is equal to
a) H.A. of the star
b) Declination of the star
c) R.A. of the star
d) None of the above
Q.16 A theodolite in the which telescope can be revolved through a complete revolution in a vertical plane is known as a
a) Non transit theodolite
b) Tilting theodolite
c) Transit theodolite
d) None of these
Q.17 In a closed traverse, the algebraic sum of departure and latitude must be equal to
a) 900 b) 1800
c) 00 d) 2700
Q.18 The first sight in leveling operation is:
a) BS b) FS
c) IS d) all the above
Q.19 In a laminar 2-D flow of viscous fluid coquette flow is defined as:
a) as the flow between two plates at rest
b) as the pressure gradient between fixed parallel plates
c) shear stress gradient between fixed parallel plates
d) laminar flow between a fixed and a moving plate
Q.20 Runway speed is defined as:
a) maximum speed of turbine
b) minimum speed of turbine
c) limiting speed of turbine
d) none
Q.21 Boundary layer thickness is the distance from the surface of solid body in the direction perpendicular to the flow, where velocity of fluid is equal to :
a) free-stream velocity
b) 0.89 times free-stream velocity
c) 0.75 times free- stream velocity
d) 0.99 times free-stream velocity
Q.22 The flow of water in a wash hand basin when it is being emptied through a central opening, is an example is:
a) Free vortex b) Forced vortex
c) Rotational vortex d) Ranking vortex
Q.23 If Mohr’s circle is drawn for a fluid body at rest, it would be
a) A circle touching the origin
b) A circle not touching the origin
c) A point on the shear stress axis
d) A point on the normal stress axis
Q.24 The ratio of the water stored in the root zone during irrigation, to the water needed in the root zone prior to irrigation is called:
a) efficiency of water use
b) efficiency of water storage
c) efficiency of water application
d) efficiency of water conveyance
Q.25 If the root zone depth is 0.8m and field capacity is 30% , permanent wilting = 15%, and density of soil= 1.5gm/cc, the consumptive use for the crop is 5mm/day, and only60% of available moisture is permitted, then the frequency of irrigation should be:
a) 9 days b) 15 days
c) 21 days d) 40 days
Q.26 A ridge canal is called is:
a) watershed canal b) constour canal
c) side slope canal d) across the constours
Q.27 An irrigation outlet is said to be proportional , when its:
a) sensitivity = 1 b) flexibility =1
c) setting= 1 d) all of the above
Q.28 Bhakra Dam is a
a) Gravity dam b) earthen dam
c) rock fill dam d) arch dam
Q.29 A groyne pointing upstream is known as:
a) attracting groyne
b) repelling groyne
c) normal groyne
d) Ordinary groyne
Q.30 Lacey’s regime theory is not applicable to:
a) true regime b) initial regime
c) final regime d) all of the above
Q.31 Direct shear test can be conducted for:
a) UU drainage conditions
b) CU drainage conditions
c) CD drainage conditions
d) All of the above
Q.32 For dense sand angle of internal friction should be:
a) less than 280 b) greater than 280
c) > 280 d) < 280
Q.33 Sum of the specific yield and specific retention is:
a) porosity b) void ratio
c) volume of voids d) none of the above
Q.34 The unit of transmissibility coefficient is:
a) m3/sec b) m2/sec
c) kg/m/sec d) kg/sec
Q.35 The depth at which vertical stress is 20% of load intensity is known as:
a) sequent depth
b) conjugate depth
c) significant depth
d) equivalent depth
Q.36 Outside clearance of a sampler should be:
a) less than 2% b) 0-2%
c) 2 -5 % d) > 5 %
Q.37 According to IS 1498 : 1970, the sieves are designated by:
a) size of the square opening
b) diameter of the sieve
c) diameter of the sieve wires
d) number of holes per square inch
Q.38 Sand replacement method uses:
a) ennore sand b) monazite sand
c) slity sand d) coarse sand
Q.39 A soil has bulk density of 24kN/m3 and water content of 20%. The dry density of soil in kN/m3.
a) 18 b) 19
c) 20 d) 21
Q.40 Culmann’s method assumes, the plane failure surface passing through
a) Base b) phase
c) toe d) None of these
Q.41 Consolidation settlement occurs due to
a) expulsion of air voids
b) expulsion of water voids
c) Both a & b
d) readjustment of soil molecules
Q.42 IS code for standard penetration test in soil is:
a) IS2911 Part 1 1976
b) IS 1498 : 1970
c) IS 8009 Part 1 1976
d) IS 376 : 1975
Q.43 If in a truss the internal static indeterminacy is less than zero then,
a) Truss is internally determinate
b) Truss is internally determinate
c) Truss is internally unstable
d) Truss is internally stable
Q.44 The bending moment on a 3-hinged parabolic arch subject to uniformly distributed load w per unit length L on entire span is:
a) wL b) wL2
c) Zero d) data insufficient
Q.45 In Linear Arch:
a) all the joints are pin connected
b) Shape is similar to funicular polygon
c) each member will have axial compressive forces and there will be no shear force and bending moment
d) All of the above
Q.46 The lower surface of a brick laid flat is known as:
a) Arris b) Bed
c) Header d) Stretcher
Q.47 Surkhi is added to lime mortar to
a) prevent shrinkage
b) decrease setting time
c) increase bulk
d) impart hydraulicity
Q.48 Pick up the erroneous statement:
a) English bond is stronger than Flemish bond
b) English bond is more economical than Flemish bond
c) Flemish bond renders the appearance of the face work more attractive and pleasing
d) a & b
Q.49 The timber obtained after felling a tree is known as:
a) Rough timber b) Converted timber
c) Standing timber d) Outer timber
Q.50 Heart rot is a defect in timber which is formed:
a) by action of certain type of fungi
b) when there is no free circulation of air
c) when a branch has come out of tree
d) when fungi cause chemical decomposition of wood
Q.51 The expected time is given by:
a) te =(t_0+〖4t〗_m+t_p)/6 b) te =(t_a+〖4t〗_m+t_p)/3
c) te =(t_a+〖2t〗_m+t_p)/6 d) te =(t_a+t_m+t_p)/3
Q.52 Total Project Cost versus time curve is
a) Parabolic curve
b) U-shaped curve
c) Linear
d) Log curve
Q.53 As per IS 456 : 2000, for sea water grade of concrete lower than which of the following shall not be used in reinforced concrete:
a) M20 b) M30
c) M35 d) M40
Q.54 Pick the incorrect statement:
a) Workability increases with increase in water-cement ratio
b) For a given water content big size aggregate give less workability
c) In lean concrete the workability is reduced
d) Air entrained concrete is more workable
Q.55 The value of critical neutral axis depth factor depends on:
a) Grade of the concrete
b) Permissible stress in reinforcement
c) Moment of resistance
d) Permissible compressive stress in concrete due to bending
Q.56 According to Le Chatelier Method for testing soundness of cement the underrated ordinary rapid hardening and low hear Portland cement should not have an expansion of more than:
a) 15 mm b) 20 mm
c) 10 mm d) 5 mm
Q.57 If B is the width of the beam and D is the overall depth, d is the effective depth then, Maximum tension reinforcement in concrete structures are:
a) 0.4 BD b) 0.4 Bd
c) 0.85 XBD/fy d) 0.87 fy
Q.58 If wind and earthquake loads are considered then the permissible stress in steel structures are:
a) increased by 25%
b) decreased by 33.33%
c) increased by 20%
d) increased by 33.33%
Q.59 Maximum permissible horizontal and vertical deflection in steel structures is:
a) Span/500 b) Span/350
c) Span/200 d) Span/1000
Q.60 Edge distance is distance between centre of the rivet and edge of the plate element measured:
a) perpendicular to the direction of force
b) parallel to the direction of force
c) inclined to the direction of force at an
d) parallel to the direction of pitch
Q.61 For steel structures maximum factor of safety is adopted for:
a) tensile stresses
b) compressive stresses
c) bending stresses
d) shear stresses
Q.62 To prevent failure of ductile material the maximum shear stress is:
a) f_u/√3 b) 2fu
c) 3fu d) √(3f_u )
Q.63 Purlins are:
a) beams
b) strut
c) subjected to direct stresses
d) a & b
Q.64 The maximum permissible stress for power driven field rivet in bearing on rivet is:
a) 100N/mm2 b) 250N/mm2
c) 270N/mm2 d) 300N/mm2
Q.65 Maximum bending moment for designing a purlin in given by:
a) f_u/√3 b) 2fu
c) 3fu d) √(3f_u )
Q.66 While designing compression members, if the spacing between two channel sections placed back to back is increased by infinite times than the minimum moment of inertia is governed by:
a) moment about X – axis
b) sum of the moments if the two sections about X-axis
c) moment about Y-axis
d) moment about Y-axis considering the spacing between the two sections
Q.67 The critical section for web crippling in case of flexure members is at;
a) the root of fillet weld
b) centre of the section
c) centre of the flange
d) none of the above
Q.68 The load carrying capacity of a column designed by working stress method is 200kN. The collapse load of the columns is:
a) 200 kN b) 300kN
c) 400kN d) 500kN
Q.69 The limit of percentage of the longitudinal reinforcement in a column is:
a) 0.15% to 2% b) 0.8% to 4%
c) 0.8% to 6% d) 0.8% to 8%
Q.70 A partially prestressed member is one in which
a) no tensile stresses are permitted under service loads
b) mild steel is used in addition to prestressing steel
c)tensile stresses are permitted but not cracking at service loads
d) tensile stresses and cracking are permitted under service loads
Q.71 The effective width bf of flange of a continuous T- beam in a floor system is given by:
Bf = + bw +6Df
Where L0 represents the’
- Distance between points of contra flexure in a span
- Effective span of beam
- Clear span of beam
- Spacing between beams
Q.72 A doubly reinforced beam is considered less economical than a singly reinforced beam because:
a) Tensile steel required is more than that for a balanced section
b) Shear reinforcement is more
c) Concrete is not stressed to its full value
d) Compressive steel is under stressed
Q.73 Which one of the following sections performs better on the ductility criterion?
a) Balanced section
b) Over reinforced section
c) Under reinforced section
d) Non prismatic section
Q.74 A T- beam behave as a rectangular beam of width equal to its flange if its neutral axis:
a) Coincides with centroid of reinforcement
b) Coincides with centroid of T section
c) Remains within the flange
d) Remains in the web
Q.75 Why is the design of a RC section as over reinforced undesirable?
a) It consumes more concrete
b) It undergoes high strain
c) It fails suddenly
d) It’s appearance is not good
Q.76 The maximum permissible shear stress tc,max given in BIS : 456 – 1978 is based on
a) Diagonal tension failure
b) Diagonal compression failure
c) Flexure tension failure
d) Flexural compression failure
Q.77 The codel provision recommends minimum shear reinforcement in the form of stirrups in the beam
1. To cater for any torsion in the beam section
2. To improve ductility of the cross section
3. To improve dowel action of longitudinal tension bar.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a)1, 2 and 3 b) 2 and 3
c)Only 1 d) Only 2
Q.78 The function of shear key in design of retaining wall is:
a) increase the bearing capacity
b) decrease the bending moment
c) increase the sliding resistance
d) All of the above
Q.79 If simply supported concrete beam, prestressed with a force of 2500kN, is designed by load balancing concept for an effective span of 10m and to carry a total load of 40kN/m, the central dip of the cable profile should be:
a) 100mm b) 200mm
c) 300mm d) 400 mm
Q.80 Maximum value of super elevation provided in the design of horizontal alignments of a highway.
a) 0.07 b) 0.03
c) 0.04 d) 0.159
Q.81 The target road density to be achieved during 2nd 20 year road plan was
a) 16km2 b) 32km2
c) 64km2 d) 50km2
Q.82 The stopping sight distance depends upon
a) Speed of vehicle
b) Total reaction time of driver
c) Efficiency of brakes
d) all of these
Q.83 When the path travelled along the road surface is more than the circumferential movement of the wheels due to rotation, then it results in:
a) Slipping b) Skidding
c) Turning d) Revolving
Q.84 The effect of grade on safe overtaking sight distances is to
a) Increase it on descending grades and to decrease it on ascending grades
b) Decrease it on descending grades and to increase it on ascending graces
c) Increase it on both descending and ascending grades
d)Increase it on both descending and ascending grades
Q.85 Design of foundation for a large generator is guided, primarily by
a) Frequency b) Deformation
c) Strength d) Stiffness
Q.86 While designing combined footing, the resultant of the column loads passes, through the centre of gravity of the footing slab such that the net soil pressure obtained is:
a) Parabolic b) Trapezoidal
c) Uniform d) Non uniform
Q.87 What is the minimum number of longitudinal bars provided in a reinforced concrete column of circular cross section?
a) 4 b) 5
c) 6 d) 8
Q.88 Given that d = effective depth,
B= width
and
D = overall depth,
The maximum area of compression reinforcement in a beam is
- 0.04 bd b) 0.04 bD
- 0.12 bd d) 0.12 bD
Q.89 Lateral ties in RC columns are provided to resist
a) Bending moment
b) Shear
c) Buckling of longitudinal steel bars
d) Both bending moment and shear
Q.90 Unequal top and bottom reinforcement in a reinforced concrete section leads to
a) Creep deflection
b) Shrinkage deflection
c) Long term deflection
d) Large defection
TEST – 1 (CIVIL )
Q. 1 Modulus of rigidity of defined as the ratio of
a) Longitudinal stress to longitudinal strain
b) Shear stress to shear strain
c) Stress to strain
d) Stress to volumetric strain
Q.2 If the Young’s modulus of elasticity of a material is twice its modulus of rigidity, then the Poisson’s ratio of the material is
a) -1 b) -0.5
c) 0.5 d) zero
Q.3 Limit of proportionality depends upon
a) Area of cross – section b) Type of loading
c) Type of material d) all of the above
Q.4 For an isotropic, homogeneous and elastic material obeying Hooke’s law, number of independent elastic constants of
a) 2 b) 3
c) 9 d) 1
Q.5 In a thin cylindrical shell, the ratio of longitudinal stress to hoop stress is
a) 0.5 b) 1
c) 2 d) 4
Q.6 If all the dimensions of a prismatic bar are doubled, then the maximum stress produced in it under its own weight will
a) Decrease
b) Remain unchanged
c) Increase to two times
d) Increase to four times
Q.7 The relationship between Young’s modulus of elasticity E, bulk modulus K and Poisson’s ratio is given by
a) E = 2 K (1- 2) b) E = 3 K (1 +)
c) E = 3 K (1-2) d) E = 2 K (1 + )
Q.8 Limiting values of Poisson’s ratio are
a) -1 and 0.5 b) -1 and -0.5
c) 1 and -0.5 d) 0 and 0.5
Q.9 The elongation of conical bar under its own weight is equal to
a) that of a prismatic bar of same length
b) one half that of a prismatic bar of same length
c) One third that of a prismatic bar of same length
d) One fourth that of a prismatic bar of same length
Q.10 If a material has identical properties in al directions, it is said to be
a) homogeneous b) isotropic
c) elastic d) orthotropic
Q.11 Two bars of different materials are of the same size and are subjected to same tensile forces. If the bars have unit elongations in the ratio of 4 : 7 , then the ratio of moduli of elasticity of the two materials is
a) 7:4 b) 4:7
c) 4:17 d) 16:49
Q.12 A prismatic bar of volume V is subjected to a tensile in longitudinal direction. If Poisson’s ratio of the material is and longitudinal strain is e, then the final volume of the bar becomes
a) (1+e ) (1- )2 V
b) (1-e) (1+ e)2 V
c) (1+e) (1- e )2 V
d) (1- e)2 V
Q. 13 If a composite bar of steel and copper is heated, then the copper bar will be under
a) tension b) compression
c) shear d) torsion
Q.14 Effective length of a weld is equal to
a) overall length- weld size
b) overall length – throat thickness
c) overall length – 2 weld size
d) overall length- 2 throat thickness
Q.15 Size of a right angled fillet weld is given by
a) 0.707 throat thickness
b) 0.414 throat thickness
c) 2.0 throat thickness
d) Throat thickness
Q.16 The effective length of a fillet weld designed to transmit axial and shall not be less than
a) 2 size of weld b) 4 size of weld
c) 6 size of weld d) 10 size of weld
Q.17 Size of fillet weld with unequal legs is equal to
a) smaller leg length
b) longer leg length
c) throat thickness
d) average of smaller and longer leg lengths
Q.18 Weakest section in a fillet weld is
a) throat of the fillet
b) smaller side
c) side parallel to force
d) side perpendicular to force
Q.19 Effective throat thickness of a fillet weld is
a) 0.707 size of weld
b) 1.414 size of weld
c) a function of the angle between fusion faces
d) Equal to the side of the fillet
Q.20 If b is the width of the plate and d is the diameter of rivet, then the efficiency of a riveted joint having diamond riveting is given by
a) b)
c) d)
Q.21 According to Unwin’s formula, the diameter of rivet in mm to suit the t mm thickness of platy of given by
a) 6t b) 6
c) 1.9 d) 1.5 t + 4
Q.22 A flat carrying a pull of 690 KN is connected to a gusset plate using rivets. If the pulls required to shear the rivet, to crush the rivet and tear the plate per pitch length are 68.5 kN and 69 kN respectively, then the number of rivets required is.
a) 10 b) 12
c) 15 d) 20
Q.23 If the rivet value is 16.8 kN and force in the member is 16.3 kN, then the number of rivers required for the connection of the member to a gusset plate is
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
Q.24 When a member is subjected shown in Fig. 10.2, which of the rivets will be subjected to maximum stress?
a) rivet A only b) rivets B and D
c) rivets C and D d) rivets A and C
Q.25 At a point in a strained body carrying two unequal unlike principal stresses p1 and p2 (p1 >p 2), the maximum shear stress is given by.
a) p1 / 2 b) p2/2
c) (p1-p2)/ 2 d) (p1+ p2) / 2
Q.26 If a point in a strained material is subjected to equal normal and tangential stresses, then the angle of obliquity is
a) 00 b) 450
c) tan-1 (1/2) d) tan-1 (2)
Q.27 If the principal stresses at a point in a strained body are p1 and p2 (p1>p2) , then the resultant stress on a plane carrying the maximum shear stress is equal to
a) b)
c) d)
Q.28 A point in a strained is body subjected to tensile stress of 100 MPa on one plane and a tensile stress of 50 MPa on a plane at right angle to it. If these planes are carrying shear stresses of
50MPa, then the principal stresses are inclined to the larger normal stress at an angle
a) tan-1 (2) b) 1/2tan -1 (2)
c) 1/2 tan-1 (2/3) d) 1/2tan-1 (1/3 )
Q.29 If a prismatic member with area of cross-section A is subjected to tensile load P1 then the maximum shear stress and its inclination with the direction of load respectively are
a) P/A and 450 b) P/2A and 450
c) P/2A and 600 d) P/2 and 300
Q.30 The sun of normal stresses is
a) constant
b) variable
c) dependent on the planes
d) none of the above
Q.31 The radius of Mohr’s circle for two equal unlike principal stresses of magnitude p is
a) P b) p/2
c) zero d) none of the above
Q.32 Shear stress on principal planes is
a) zero b) maximum
c) minimum d) none of the above
Q.33 The state of pure shear stress is produced by
a) tension in one direction and equal compression in perpendicular direction
b) equal tension in two directions at right angles
c) equal compression in two directions at right angles
d) none of the above
Q.34 A prismatic bar is carrying only an axial force. The two planes on which normal and shearing stresses are equal are inclined to the axial force at angles
a) 0 and 1/2 b) π/4 and 3π/4
c) π/6 and 2π/4 d) π/3 and 5π/6
Q.35 According to Rankin’s hypothesis, the criterion of failure of brittle material is
a) maximum principal stress
b) maximum shear stress
c) maximum strain energy
d) maximum shear strain energy
Q.36 Maximum bending moment in a Bearn occurs where
a) deflection is zero b) shear force is maximum
c) shear force is minimum d) shear force changes sign
Q.37 A simply supported beam of span I carries over its full span a load varying linearly from zero at either end to w/unit length at midspan. The maximum bending moment occurs at
a) quarter points and is equal to 〖wl〗^2/8 b) quarter points and is equal to 〖wl〗^2/12
c) midspan and is equal to 〖wl〗^2/8 d) midspan and is equal to 〖wl〗^2/12
Q.38 Rate of change of bending moment is equal to
a) shear force b) deflection
c) slope d) rate of loading
Q.39 The diagram showing the variation of axial load along the span is called
a) shear force diagram b) bending moment diagram
c) thrust diagram d) influence line diagram
Q.40 The difference in ordinate of the shear curve between any two sections is equal to the area under
a) load curve between these two sections
b) shear curve between these two sections
c) bending moment curve between these two sections
d) load curve between these two sections concentrated loads applied between the sections.
Q.41 The variation of the bending moment in the portion of a beam carrying linearly varying load is
a) linear b) parabolic
c) cubic d) constant
Q.42 The maximum bending moment due to a moving load on a fixed ended beam occurs
a) at a support b) always at the midspan
c) under the load only d) none of the above
Q.43 A cantilever beam AB of length 1 carries a concentrated load W at its C. If the free end B is supported on a rigid prop, then there is a point of contra flexure
a) between A and C
b) between C and B
c) one between A and C and other between C and B
d) nowhere in the beam
Q.44 A prismatic beam fixed at both ends caries a uniformly distributed load. The ratio of bending moment at the supports to the bending moment at mid-span is
a) 0.5 b) 1.0
c) slope d) rate of loading
Q. 45 The relationship between the radius of curvature R, bending moment M and flexural E1 is given by
a) R = M/EI b) M = E1/R
c) E! = R/M d) E = M1/R
Q.46 A beam of overall length 1 with equal overhangs on both sides carries a uniformly distributed load over the entire length. To have numerically equal bending moments at centre of the beam and at supports, the distance between the supports should be
a) 0.2771 b) 0.4031
c) 0.5861 d) 0.7071
Q.47 A prismatic beam of length 1 and fixed at both ends carries a uniformly distributed load. The distance of points of contra flexure from either end is
a) 0.2071 b) 0.2111
c) 0.2771 d) 0.251
Q.48 A simply supported beam of length 1 carries a load varying uniformly from zero at left and to maximum at right end. The maximum bending moment occurs at a distance a
1/ √3 from left and
1/3 from left and
1/ from right end
1/3 from right end
Q.49 If a cantilever beam carries a uniformly distributed load over its entire length, then shapes of shear- force diagram and bending- moment diagram respectively are
a) quadratic parabola and cubic parabola
b) triangle and quadratic parabola
c) rectangle and triangle
d) quadratic parabola and triangle
Q50 A portion of a beam between two sections is said to be in pure bending when there is
Constant bending moment and zero shear force
Constant shear force and zero bending moment
Constant bending moment and constant shear force
None of the above
Q.51 Residual soils are formed by
a) glaciers b) wind
c) water d) none of the above
Q.52 Water content of soil can
Never be greater than 100%
b) take values only from 0% to 100%
c) be less than 0%
d) be greater than 100%
Q.53 Which of the following types of soil is transported by gravitational forces?
a) loess b) talus
c) drift d) dune sand
Q.54 A fully saturated soil is said to the
a) one phase system
b) two phase system with soil and air
c) two phase system with soil and water
d) three phase system
Q.55 Valid range for S, the degree of saturation of soil in percentage is
a) S > 0 b) S < 0
c) 0 < S < 100 d) 0 < S < 100
Q.56 A soil has bulk density of 22 kN/m3 and water content 10%. The dry density of soil is
a) 18.6 kN/m3 b) 20.0 kN/m3
c) 22.0 kN/m3 d) 23.2kN/m3
Q.57 If the voids of a soil mass are full of air only, the soil is termed is
a) air entrained soil
b) partially saturated soil
c) dry soil d) dehydrated soil
Q.58 Valid range for n, the percentage voids, is
a) 0 < n < 100 b) 0 < n < 100
c) n < 0 d) n < 0
Q.59 Select the correct statement.
a) Unit weight of dry soil is greater than unit weight of wet soil.
b) For dry soils, dry unit weight is less than total unit weight.
c) Unit weight of soil increases the due to submergence in water.
d) Unit weight of soil decreases due to submergence in water.
Q.60 Voids ratio of soil mass can
a) never be greater than unity
b) be zero
c) take any value greater than zero
d) take values between 0 and 1 only
Q.61 If the volume of voids is equal to the volume of solids in a soil mass, then the values of porosity and voids ratio respectively are.
a) 1.0 and 0.0 b) 0.0 and 1.0
c) 0.5 and 1.0 d) 1.0 and 0.5
Q.62 When the degree of saturation is zero, the soil mass under consideration represents
a) One phase system
b) Two phase system with soil and air
c) Two phase system with soil and water
d) Three phase system
Q.63 Select the correct range of density index, 1D
a) 1D > 0 b) ID > 0
c) 0 < 1D
Q.64 If the degree of saturation of a partially saturated soil is 60% , then air content of the soil is
a) 40% b) 60%
c) 80% d) 100%
Q.65 If the water content of a fully saturated soil mass is 100%, then the voids ratio of the sample is
less than specific gravity of soil
equal to specific gravity of soil
greater than specific gravity of soil
independent of specific gravity of soil
Q.66 The ratio of volume of voids to the total volume of soil mass is called
a) air content b) porosity
c) percentage air voids d) voids ratio
Q.67 Relative density of a compacted dense sand is approximately equal to
a) 0.4 b) 0.6
c) 0.95 d) 1.20
Q.68 If the sand in-situ is in its densest state, then the relative density of sand is
a) zero b) 1
c) between 0 and 1 d) greater than 1
Q.69 Which of the following methods is most accurate for the determination of the water content of soil?
a) oven drying metho b) sand bath method
c) alcohol method d) calcium carbide method
Q.70 A pedometer is used to determine
a) water content and voids ratio
b) specific gravity and dry density
c) water content and specific gravity
d) voids ratio and dry density
Q.71 Stoker’s law is valid only if the size of particle is
a) less than 0.0002 mm
b) greater than 0.2 mm
c) between 0.2 mm and 0.0002 mm
d) all of the above
Q.72 In hydrometer analysis for a soil mass
a) both meniscus correction and dispersing agent correction are additive
b) both meniscus correction and dispersing agent correction are subtractive.
c) meniscus correction is additive and dispersing agent correction is subtractive
d) meniscus correction is subtractive and dispersing agent correction is additive
Q.73 The hydrometer method of sedimentation analysis differs from the pipette analysis mainly in
a) the principle of test
b) the method of taking observations.
c)the method of preparations of soil suspension
d) all of the above
Q.74 Which of the following is a measure of particle size range?
a) effective size
b) uniformity coefficient
c) coefficient of curvature
d) none of the above
Q75 Which of the following statements is correct?
Uniformity coefficient represents the shape of the particle size distribution curve.
For a well graded soil, both uniformity coefficient and coefficient of curvature are nearly unity.
A soil is said to be well graded if it has most of the particles of about the same size
None of the above
Q.76 Uniformity coefficient of a soil is
a) always less than 1
b) always equal to 1
c) equal to less than 1
d) equal to or greater than 1
Q.77 According to Atterberg, the soil is said to be of medium plasticity if the plasticity index P1 is.
a) 0 < P1 < 7 b) 7 < P1 < 17
c) 17 < P127
Q.78 If the natural water content of soil mass lies between its liquid limit and plastic limit, the soil mass is said to be in
a) liquid state b) plastic state
c) semi-solid state d) solid state
Q.79 The ratio (Liquid LImit-Water Content)/(Plasticity Index) for a soil mass is called
a) liquidity index b) shrinkage ratio
c) consistency index d) toughness index
Q.80 When the plastic limit of a soil is greater than the liquid, then the plasticity index is reported is
a) negative b) zero
c) non-plastic (NP) d) 1
Q.81 Toughness index is defined as the ratio of
a) plasticity index to consistency index
b) plasticity index to flow index
c) liquidity index to flow index
d) consistency index to liquidity index
Q.82 If the plasticity index of a soil mass is zero, the soil is
a) sand b) silt
c) clay d) clayey silt
Q.83 The admixture of coarser particles like sand or silt to clay causes.
a) decrease in liquid limit and increase in plasticity index.
b) decrease in liquid limit and no change in plasticity index.
c) decrease in both liquid limit and plasticity index.
d) increase in both liquid limit and plasticity index
Q.84 Select the correct statement .
a) A uniform soil has more strength and stability than a non-uniform soil.
b) A uniform soil has less strength and stability than a non-uniform soil.
c) Uniformity coefficient does not affect strength and stability
d) Uniformity coefficient of a poorly graded soil is more than that of a well graded soil
Q.85 The water content of soil, which represents the boundary between plastic state and liquid state, is known as
a) liquid limit b) plastic limit
c) Shrinkage limit d) plasticity index
Q.86 Which of the following soils has more plasticity index?
a) sand b) silt
c) clay d) gravel
Q.87 At liquid limit, all soils possess
a) same shear strength of small magnitude
b) same shear strength of large magnitude
c)different shear strengths of small magnitude
d)different shear strengths of large magnitude
Q.88 If the material of the base of the Casagrande liquid limit device on which the cup containing soil paste drops is softer than the standard hard rubber, then
a) the liquid limit of soil always increase
b) the liquid limit or soil always decrease
c) the liquid limit of soil may increase
d) the liquid limit of soil may decrease
Q.89 According to IS classification, the range of silt size particles is
a) 4.75 mm to 2.00 mm
b) 2.00 mm to 0.424 mm
c) 0.425 mm to 0.075 mm
d) 0.075 mm to 0.002 mm
Q.90 Highway Research Board (HRB) classify cation of soils is based on
a) particle size composition
b) plasticity characteristics
c) both particle size composition and plasticity characteristics
d) none of the above
Q.91 Inorganic soils with low compressibility are represented by
a) MH b) SL
c) ML d) CH
Q.92 Sand particles are made of
a) Rock minerals b) kaolinite
c) Illite d) montmorillonite
Q.93 The clay mineral with the largest swelling and shrinkage characteristics is
a) Kaolinite b) illite
c) Montmorillonite d) none of the above
Q.94 Dispersed type of soil structure is an arrangement comprising particles having
a) face to face or parallel orientation
b) edge to edge orientation
c) edge to face orientation
d) all of the above
Q.95 Effective stress is
a) the stress at particles contact
b) a physical parameter that can be measured
c) important because it is a function of engineering properties of soil
d) all of the above
Q.96 Rise of water table above the ground surface cause
a) equal increase in pore water pressure and total stress
b) equal decrease in pore water pressure and total stress
c) increase in pore water pressure but decrease in total stress
d) decrease in pore water pressure but increase in total stress
Q.97 The total and effective stresses at a depth of 5 m below the top level of water in a swimming pool are respectively
a) zero and zero b) 0.5 kg/cm2 and zero
c) 0.5 kg/cm2 and 0.5 kg/cm2 d) 1.0 kg/cm2 and 0.5 kg/cm2
Q.98 If the water table rises up to ground surface, then the
a) effective stress is reduced due to decrease in total stress only but pore water pressure does not change
b) effective stress is reduced due to increase in pore water pressure only but total stress does not change
c) total stress is reduced due to increase in pore water pressure only but effective stress does not change
d) total stress is increased due to decrease in pore water pressure but effective stress does not change
Q.99 Quick sand is a
a) type of sand
b) flow condition occurring in cohesive soils
c) flow condition occurring in cohesion less soils
d) flow condition occurring in both cohesive and cohesion less soils
Q.100 The hydraulic head that would produce a quick condition in a sand stratum of thickness 1.5m, specific gravity 2.67 and voids ratio 0.66 is equal to
a) 1.0 m b) 1.5m
c) 2.0m d) 3m